PMP Practice Exam 1

This the first of our four PMP practice exams. These questions are designed to help you prepare for your Project Management Professional certification exam. There are 50 challenging questions on this practice test that are split evenly between all of the topics. Each question includes a detailed explanation of the correct answer. Start your test prep right now with our free PMP practice exam!

Congratulations - you have completed . You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
You are a construction project manager and have been recently hired in a well known company as the manager of a highly crucial project. The project is expected to be completed in 2 years. During the project initiation phase you realize that some regulatory and environmental requirements have not been considered in the contract. Failure to meet the mentioned requirements will negatively affect your company’s reputation, but meeting them will require more time and cost, which will lead to budget and time overruns. In that case, there’s also a chance that the client decides to cancel the project. What would you do in that situation?

A
Since this is only a probability it does not need an immediate action. Just try to gather more information as the project goes ahead and decide later on.
B
Your first and immediate action is to disclose your discovery to the project stakeholders and solicit their viewpoints.
C
As a seasoned construction project manager, contact the regulatory body to find out some workarounds for your project.
D
This requires a scope change notification that should be written immediately.
Question 1 Explanation: 
PMI's Code of Ethics requires all project managers to comply with all laws and regulations. Failure to immediately and actively disclose that a regulatory requirement has not been addressed puts the company and the project manager in the position of breaking the law.
Question 2
You are implementing the “Create WBS” process. At which level of the project WBS are project deliverables defined?

A
WBS starts with deliverables at the highest level and ends with activities at the lowest one.
B
Project deliverable list is a document independent from project WBS.
C
Deliverables can be at any level of the WBS.
D
Deliverables are defined at the lowest level of the hierarchical WBS.
Question 2 Explanation: 
Deliverables are defined at the lowest level of the hierarchical WBS. Project deliverables are considered work packages that assist in identifying tasks to be included in WBS (higher levels).
Question 3
You are managing a project with 9 stakeholders. At points you get confused with the amount of emails and other communications that you need to respond every day. How many communication channels do you need to plan?

A
100
B
45
C
90
D
40
Question 3 Explanation: 
The formula to identify the number of communication channels is:
n(n − 1)/2, where n is the number of stakeholders including yourself.
In your project, 10(10 − 1)/2 = 45.
Question 4
You are managing a software development project which should be completed in 18 months according to the project contract and schedule. Your customer has recently faced regulatory changes that require your project to be finished 2 months earlier and he asks you to do so. How will you approach this situation?

A
Accept the customer’s request and cut parts of the project scope to meet the new deadline.
B
Stick to your original schedule and tell the customer that once the contract is signed the project duration won’t change under any circumstances.
C
Inform the customer of the impacts of his requirement to project constraints and, after getting the required approvals, crash the project.
D
Cut the duration of all project activities across the board to meet the requirement.
Question 4 Explanation: 
Informing the customer of the impacts to project scope and other constraints, then crashing the cost and schedule is the best approach. Arbitrarily trimming estimates or scope without directly advising your customer is dishonest, while simply refusing to make a change is unprofessional.
Question 5
According to the contract, your customer has assigned one of his staff to your project office to attend the meetings and contribute to the decision making. However, this person is too confrontational and his behavior to your project team members is intimidating. What should be your action in this situation?

A
You unilaterally decide to isolate the person and don’t let him in the project meetings.
B
Confront the person about his behavior and its impact on the project. Also, inform the customer about the issue.
C
Ask the customer to replace the person.
D
Since the person is assigned by your client you don’t have any authority over him, so don’t do anything.
Question 5 Explanation: 
The best approach to deal with the problems is to confront them. In this situation you should respectfully confront the resource about this behavior, and notify the customer about the situation. Failing to confront the resource or intentionally excluding a required resource from a project is unprofessional, and could negatively impact the project.
Question 6
The majority of the project management software packages use the --------- method to build the project schedule network diagram.

A
Precedence Diagramming
B
Activity-On-Arrows Diagramming
C
Critical Diagramming
D
Leads and Lags
Question 6 Explanation: 
PDM, also called Activity-On-Node (AON), is the method used by most project management and project planning software packages.
Question 7
You are managing a software project with an original time span of 5 months and an estimated budget of $50,000. Due to a delay in shipment of a server required for the project the schedule is slightly delayed. To compensate for the delay you ask some of the developers to work overtime, and consequently you face some additional costs. At the end of second month, you see that the project is 40% complete while the actual costs are at $25,000. What is the Estimate to Complete (ETC) at the end of second month?

A
$35,000
B
$30,000
C
$25,000
D
$50,000
Question 7 Explanation: 
The Budget at completion (BAC) = $50,000
The Actual Cost (AC) = $25,000
Earned value (EV) = (2/5) * 50,000 since 40% of the project is complete i.e. 2 months out of 5.
Earned Value (EV) = $20,000
This is an instance of an atypical situation in the project. Delay in the shipment of the server does not mean that all subsequent activities will finish late. Hence, the calculation used for ETC is:
ETC = BAC − EV
= $50,000 − $20,000
= $30,000.
Question 8
If the completion of an activity depends on the completion of its predecessor activity, what type of dependency does this activity have on its predecessor?

A
Finish-to-Start
B
Start-to-Start
C
Start-to-Finish
D
Finish-to-Finish
Question 8 Explanation: 
In a Finish-to-Finish (FF) dependency the finish date of one task drives the finish date of another. In other words, both activities finish at the same time regardless of their start time.
Question 9
To formally authorize the project, which of the following documents is necessary?

A
Project Contract
B
Project Statement of Work (SOW)
C
Project Charter
D
Business Case
Question 9 Explanation: 
The project charter is the document that officially authorizes a project and gives the project manager the required authority to assign resources to the project.
Question 10
As a project manager you realize that there is a continuous conflict between two of the project team members. What is the best approach to handle these conflicts?

A
Conflicts are harmful to the project progress, therefore you need to smooth them when they happen.
B
The best approach is to ignore conflicts because they are common and unavoidable in all of the projects.
C
It’s suggested to handle conflicts in the team meetings so that everybody in the project team learns from them.
D
The best approach is to address the conflicts immediately and in a direct way involving both members, but preferably in private.
Question 10 Explanation: 
Smoothing and ignoring conflicts are passive methods of approaching them and usually not as productive as direct confrontation with the conflicts. Raising a conflict which is between only 2 people in a meeting is not the best way. The best way is to address such issues as early as possible and in a direct and private way. This approach is also known as problem-solving.
Question 11
You are a project manager and you are about to perform the risk management processes. Which one of the following documents evolves throughout the risk management processes?

A
Risk Profile
B
Risk Mitigation Plan
C
Contingency Plan
D
Risk Register
Question 11 Explanation: 
The risk register is the document that evolves throughout the risk management processes.
Question 12
As a project manager you are performing scope management processes. What is the function of the WBS Dictionary?

A
Used as a glossary to define the acronyms used in the project WBS
B
It is used for the planning of the project resources
C
Describes the details of each component in the project WBS
D
Used as a glossary to define the acronyms used in the project scope statement
Question 12 Explanation: 
The WBS Dictionary is a detailed description of work packages and their attributes including any technical documentation for each WBS element.
Question 13
As the manager of a large project, you are performing the Close Procurement process. Which one of the following are not considered as tools and techniques of this process?

A
Negotiated Settlements
B
Inspection & Audits
C
Records Management System
D
Procurement Audits
Question 13 Explanation: 
Inspection & Audits is a tool used in the Control Procurement process. The other answer choices are the tools and techniques of the Close Procurement process.
Question 14
Some projects have a comprehensive procurement phase that covers buying a huge number of items and for each item several suppliers are contacted to receive their bids. As a project manager in such projects, you need to make sure that every supplier has a clear understanding of the requirements of the project. Which one of the following techniques could be used for this purpose?

A
Communication Matrix
B
One-on-One discussion
C
Bidder Conferences
D
Formal Presentation
Question 14 Explanation: 
Bidder Conferences (also called vendor conferences, contractor conferences, or pre-bid conferences) are meetings between buyers and all prospective sellers prior to the submittal of bids or proposals. They are used to ensure that all sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement and that no bidders receive preferential treatment. Responses to questions are incorporated as procurement document amendments. To be fair, buyers must ensure that all sellers hear every question from individual sellers and every answer from the buyer.
Question 15
Following are the parameters estimated in the Earned Value analysis of a project:

  • Actual Cost: $2,000,000
  • Cost Variance: $-200,000
  • SPI: 1.1
  • Budget at Completion (BaC): $5,200,000

What is the Earned Value of the project?

A
$1,800,000
B
$2,200,000
C
$3,200,000
D
$5,200,000
Question 15 Explanation: 
Cost Variance (CV) = Earned Value (EV) − Actual Cost (AC)
−200,000 = EV − 2,000,000
EV= 1,800,000
Question 16
As the project manager you are reviewing the earned value analysis report performed by your team. The SPI is 0.87. What does this figure mean to you?

A
The project is getting 87 cents out of each dollar spent.
B
You are ahead of schedule.
C
The progress of your project is only 87% of what it is planned, so you are behind the schedule.
D
Your project is running according to the budget.
Question 16 Explanation: 
The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is a measure of the project performance in terms of the time schedule. SPI < 1 shows that the project is behind schedule.
Question 17
As the project manager you wish to use a document that shows the work assigned to each project team member. What’s the title of the document that you will use?

A
Project Schedule
B
Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)
C
Project Resources Matrix (PRM)
D
Resource Planning Chart (RPC)
Question 17 Explanation: 
A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) illustrates association between work packages/activities and team members. It makes it easy for team members to view all the project activities for which a particular person is assigned, and the level of their responsibility.
Question 18
You are managing a project in a highly cost sensitive company. Therefore, you need to reduce the costs to the extent possible. Which one of the following categories of cost you would consider as the first option for cost reduction?

A
Direct and variable costs
B
Indirect and direct costs
C
Variable and fixed costs
D
Indirect and variable costs
Question 18 Explanation: 
Direct costs belong to project resources which can be scaled down or reduced. Variable costs depend on the amount of work performed by resources. Therefore, there is a higher opportunity to reduce it by reducing the scope and amount of work required.
Question 19
Budget forecasts are created during which of the following project management process groups?

A
Planning
B
Initiating
C
Executing
D
Monitoring & Controlling
Question 19 Explanation: 
Budget forecasts are one of the outputs of the Control Costs process which is in Monitoring & Controlling.
Question 20
As a project manager you are involved in purchasing various items for the project. However, you suddenly receive an official letter from your client ordering the immediate termination of the project. What will be your best course of action?

A
Perform Inspections & Audits
B
Release the Project Team
C
Refer to Project Closure Guidelines in Organizational Process Assets
D
Perform Procurement Audits
Question 20 Explanation: 
Since this is a case of project closure before its completion, as a project manager the BEST thing to do for you is to make sure the steps to close a project are followed. Project Closure Guidelines in Organizational Process Assets are the best source of information in such a situation.
Question 21
Which of the following is not a tool and technique of the Collect Requirements process?

A
Facilitated Workshops
B
Questionnaires & Surveys
C
Prototypes
D
Inspection
Question 21 Explanation: 
Inspection is a tool and technique for the Validate Scope process while the other options are all the tools used for the Collect Requirements process.
Question 22
In an industrial project the equipment installation can be started 15 days after the equipment foundation is completed. What type of dependency is this?

A
Finish-to-start with a 15-day lag
B
Finish-to-finish with a 15-day lag
C
Start-to-finish with a 15-day lead
D
Finish-to-start with a 15-day lead
Question 22 Explanation: 
The dependency between the two activities is a Finish-to-Start (FS) type because the second activity can start only after the completion of the first one. There is also a time lag of 15 days before the second activity can start.
Question 23
According to Tuckman, which of the following is not one of the stages of team development?

A
Norming
B
Delegating
C
Forming
D
Performing
Question 23 Explanation: 
According to Tuckman, the stages of team development are Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning.
Question 24
You are reviewing the earned value analysis of your project and you see following information:

  • Earned Value = $500,000
  • Actual Cost = $550,000
  • Planned Value = $600,000
According to this information what is the status of your project?

A
Ahead of schedule and under budget
B
Behind schedule and under budget
C
Ahead of schedule and over budget
D
Behind schedule and over budget
Question 24 Explanation: 
SV = EV − PV
SV = 500,000 − 600,000
SV = $−100,000
Since SV is negative the project is behind schedule.

CV = EV − AC
CV = 500,000 − 550,000
CV = $−50,000
Since CV is negative the project is over budget.
Question 25
Which of these is an output from the Acquire Project Team process?

A
Staffing Management Plan
B
Organizational chart
C
RAM
D
Project staff assignments
Question 25 Explanation: 
After determining elements such as the roles and responsibilities, reviewing recruitment practices, and negotiating for staff, project team members are assigned to project activities as part of the Acquire Project Team process.
Question 26
Which one of the following is not an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

A
Contract
B
Project Statement of Work
C
Business Case
D
Stakeholders Register
Question 26 Explanation: 
Inputs of the Develop Project Charter process are:

  • Project Statement of Work
  • Business Case
  • Contract
  • Enterprise Environmental Factors
  • Organizational Process Assets
Question 27
Which one of the following is not an output of the Direct & Manage Execution process?

A
Change Requests
B
Project document updates
C
Performance Reports
D
Deliverables
Question 27 Explanation: 
Performance reports are an output of the Report Performance process while the outputs of the Direct & Manage Execution process are:

  • Deliverables
  • Work Performance Information
  • Change Requests
  • Project Management Plan Updates
  • Project Document Updates
Question 28
As a project manager involved in the Close Procurements process you are aware that early termination of a contract is a special case of procurement closure. The special cases of procurement closure can result from all of the following except?

A
Convenience of the buyer provided in the contract
B
Default of one party
C
Cause or convenience outside the terminations clause of the contract
D
Mutual agreement of both parties to terminate
Question 28 Explanation: 
Early termination of a contract is a special case of procurement closure that can result from a mutual agreement of both parties, from the default of one party, or for the convenience of the buyer if provided for in the contract. The rights and responsibilities of the parties in the event of an early termination are contained in a terminations clause of the contract.
Question 29
The cost baseline is developed during which process?

A
Determine budget
B
Monitor & control project work
C
Develop schedule
D
Estimate costs
Question 29 Explanation: 
The cost baseline or project budget is developed in the Determine Budget process which is a planning process in project cost management.
Question 30
Which statement about the project critical path is true?

A
The critical path consumes the biggest portion of the project budget compared to other paths
B
The critical path has zero or negative total float
C
A project can have only one critical path
D
The critical path has zero total float and it shows the earliest possible time to complete the project
Question 30 Explanation: 
The critical path can have negative total float in the case that there is a constraint set on the project finish date.
Question 31
While acquiring your project team you realize that according to the project charter a specific consultant is required to be on your team. This consultant has particular knowledge and your client has dictated that you hire him as a team member. This situation describes which one of the tools and techniques of the “Acquire Project Team” process?

A
Acquisition
B
Virtual Teams
C
Pre-Assignments
D
Negotiation
Question 31 Explanation: 
Pre-assignment involves selecting project team members in advance. It occurs when specific people were promised as part of the project proposal, the project is dependent on expertise of particular persons, or staff assignments are defined within the project charter.
Question 32
You are assigned as the manager of a huge multi-billion dollar infrastructure project with a time span of 3 years. You are working in the planning process group of your project and currently you are creating the project WBS. Due to lack of information you decide to create the WBS of the commissioning phase of the project (which is the last phase) in more details later on when you have more information. This approach to creating the WBS is also known as:

A
Rolling wave planning
B
Agile planning
C
Water fall planning
D
Progressive planning
Question 32 Explanation: 
Rolling wave planning involves planning near-term items in greater detail than those that are further off in time.
Question 33
Your project is 4 weeks behind schedule and you have been asked to crash the project in order to make up the lost time. The tasks listed in the table below are all on the critical path. Which of the tasks below would you crash?

PMP T1

A
Tasks C & E
B
Tasks D & E & F
C
Tasks B & D
D
Task A
Question 33 Explanation: 
When crashing a project you will always crash those tasks that have the smallest crash cost. While all of these answers will give you a 4 week reduction in duration, crashing tasks C & E is the cheapest option:
Task A = 6,500
Tasks C & E = 2,000 + 3,500 = 5,500
Tasks B & D = 2,500 + 3,500 = 6,000
Tasks D & E & F = 3,500 + 3,500 + 4,000 = 11,000
Question 34
You are managing a project and one of your close friends is also a manager at the client organization. During the project execution, your friend asks for changes to be made in the project scope, and with the reasoning that the changes are critical to the success of the project, he asks you to handle them on an informal basis. He argues that if you want to follow the normal change procedures you will lose considerable time. What should you do in this situation?

A
Perform the changes according to the manager’s request because they are crucial to the project success, but document them later on when the project is on track and there are no more changes to be made.
B
Since what the manager has asked you is unethical you should refuse the changes.
C
Comply with the manager’s request since it is critical to the project success.
D
Explain to the manager that the change should be handled through the formal change management process and it should be documented.
Question 34 Explanation: 
The correct response is that you would explain to the manager that you would need to formally document these as part of a project scope change and put it through the change management process. Complying with the manager's request is incorrect and violates the code of ethics and professional responsibility that you have towards your organization. Refusing to take up the changes may be too drastic a step.
Question 35
As a project manager you are using a fishbone diagram to find the potential risks on your project. Which process are you in?

A
Perform Qualitative Analysis
B
Identify Risk
C
Perform Quality Control
D
Plan Risk Response
Question 35 Explanation: 
A fishbone diagram (also called cause and effect analysis or Ishikawa diagram) is used in the Identify Risks process to determine the potential risks that might affect the project.
Question 36
As a project manager you are currently involved in a Close Project or Phase process. In this situation which one of the following activities would be your lowest priority?

A
If a project is terminated before completion, starting procedures to investigate and document the reasons for this early termination.
B
Finalizing all activities across all of the Project Management Process Groups.
C
Measuring the project scope against the project management plan.
D
Performing activities such as finalizing open claims, updating records to reflect final results, and archiving such information for future use.
Question 36 Explanation: 
The Close Procurements process involves administrative activities such as finalizing open claims, updating records to reflect final results, and archiving such information for future use. Procurement Close could be done at any stage of the project and is not associated only with Close Project or Phase process.
Question 37
You are the construction project manager of an important stadium which is going to be used for the Winter Olympics. The games start a month from now, and your project has faced some weather delays in pouring the concrete for the landscaping. You know that bad weather might affect the quality of the concrete, however since the deadline is closing you decide to not delay the project anymore and go ahead with the remaining concrete work. Which risk strategy are you undertaking?

A
Mitigate
B
Exploit
C
Transfer
D
Accept
Question 37 Explanation: 
In this situation your are taking the Acceptance strategy. Acceptance is adopted when there is no possibility to eliminate all threats from a project. This means the project team has decided not to change the project management plan to deal with a risk or is unable to identify a response strategy. This strategy can be active or passive acceptance. Passive Acceptance: No action except documenting the strategy and leave project team to deal with the risks as they occur. Active Acceptance: Establish a contingency reserve (time/money/resources).
Question 38
As a software project manager you are in the initial stages of the project. Based on your past experience you know that the project will face a lot of challenges in terms of budget and time schedule. In which of the following project management documents would you record these challenges?

A
Project Management Plan
B
Issue Log
C
Project Risk Register
D
Project Charter
Question 38 Explanation: 
Since you are in the initial stage of the project the risks should be recorded in the project charter. However, if the project has completed the initiation stage, the risks should be recorded in the risk register as part of the project management plan.
Question 39
Tom is managing a software development project in a large IT firm. According to the project essential requirements, he has written an email to one of the functional managers and requested a number of staff to be assigned to his project on a permanent basis for a 2-week period. The functional manager has rejected Tom’s request. What should Tom do in this situation?

A
Record this as a risk in the risk register
B
Raise the issue to higher level managers who can decide on project priorities
C
Change the sequence of activities so that he can cope with the resource limitations
D
Negotiate with the functional manager
Question 39 Explanation: 
Tom as the project manager has the ultimate responsibility of acquiring the resources on time. In this situation he should use the negotiation tools and techniques to acquire the project team. Of course other items might also be correct in some situations, but the first most responsible way is to do negotiation with the functional managers.
Question 40
You are managing a residential building construction project. Your client has just requested a change in the lighting system which may increase project risk and costs. What should be your first action?

A
Raise the issue to the project sponsor
B
Analyze the impacts of the change
C
Update the project risk register
D
Issue a Change Request
Question 40 Explanation: 
The first action after receiving any change request is to analyze the impacts. Then after comparing the impacts to the plan you may need to issue a change request to modify the project scope. Raising the issue to the project sponsor is also possible once you are aware of the impacts of the change.
Question 41
For the purpose of recording project lessons learned, you are analyzing the major delay in the project schedule. The root cause of the delay was a demonstration done by a group of green initiative supporters. They were unhappy because their representatives were not informed about all of the arrangements that you are taking to protect the environment. What could you and your team have done better to prevent this from happening?

A
A better project management plan
B
A more accurate stakeholder identification
C
A clearer communication management plan
D
A more accurate risk response planning
Question 41 Explanation: 
Identifying stakeholders and understanding their relative degree of influence on a project is critical. Failure to do so can extend the timeline and raise costs substantially. An important part of a project manager's responsibility is to manage stakeholder expectations and develop a strategy to keep them satisfied.
Question 42
In the quality management process, which of the following is not attributable to the cost of non-conformance?

A
Downtime
B
Warranty
C
Rework
D
Quality measures
Question 42 Explanation: 
Quality measures are not an attribute of the cost of non-conformance. The cost of non-conformance result in some kind of a loss or rejection of the project’s output.
Question 43
In an internal project who is in charge of providing the project statement of work, which includes a narrative description of the products and services to be delivered?

A
Sponsor
B
Project Management Team
C
Project Stakeholders
D
Project Manager
Question 43 Explanation: 
According to PMBOK v.5, the statement of work (SOW) is a narrative description of products or services to be delivered by the project. For internal projects, the project initiator or sponsor provides the statement of work based on business needs, product, or service requirements.
Question 44
You are managing an IT project and until today you have actually completed $470,000 of work, but based on the cost plan, it should be $560,000. What is the Schedule Variance (SV) percentage at this point in time?

A
19%
B
16%
C
−16%
D
−19%
Question 44 Explanation: 
SV% = (EV − PV) / PV
SV% = ($470,000 − $560,000) / $560,000
SV% = −16%
Question 45
You are managing a small project in the context of a large organization. A strategic decision made in the organization was to shut down one of the operation units which was supposed to work a few days for your project. This might lead to missing a major milestone in your project so you need to do the required planning to acquire outside resources to get your project activity done. Which tools and techniques of the Plan Risk Response process will help you in this situation?

A
Contingent response strategies
B
Strategies for positive risks or opportunities
C
Strategies for negative risks or threats
D
Risk Reassessment
Question 45 Explanation: 
This is the situation where the risk response happens after the trigger which is the sudden shut down of an operational unit in the company. Some responses are designed to use only if a specific event occurs. It is appropriate for the project team to make a response plan that will be executed only under certain predefined conditions (triggers like missing intermediate milestones). The risk response occurs BEFORE the risk and tries to alter the probability and/or impact while the contingency plan only occurs AFTER the trigger (usually the risk event) and focuses only on changing the impact.
Question 46
You're managing a project with a total budget of $1,000,000 and your project is expected to last for one year, with the work and budget spread evenly across all months. The project is now in the fifth month, the work is on schedule, and you have already spent $480,000 of the project budget. What is the Cost Variance in this case?

A
$20,000
B
−$63,333
C
$63,333
D
−$20,000
Question 46 Explanation: 
Cost Variance = Earn Value − Actual Cost

Earn Value = (Total Cost / Total Project Months) * Total Months Completed
Earn Value = ($1,000,000 / 12) * 5
Earn Value = 416,667

CV = 416,667 − $480,000
CV = −$63,333.
Question 47
You are a software development project manager and most of your team members operate from remote locations without the benefit of face-to-face contact. One of your major concerns is to build trust among the team members. Which of the following will help you the most in doing so?

A
Establishing Ground Rules
B
Training
C
Team-building activities
D
Co-Location
Question 47 Explanation: 
Team Building activities help develop trust and help establish good working relationships. Ongoing communications are a part of Team Building Activities. It is a tool used in Develop Project Team. Especially when the teams become remote, the importance of ongoing communication increases in building trust among the team members.
Question 48
You are managing an airport construction company. In the middle of the project you realize that one of the subcontractors is not meeting the quality requirements as stipulated in their contract. This is a risk that may result in the final product of the project being rejected by your client. What is your first course of action?

A
Raise the risk to the Sponsor
B
Initiate a change request
C
Perform inspection & audit
D
Perform claim administration
Question 48 Explanation: 
According to PMBOK v.5, inspections and audits required by the buyer and supported by the seller as specified in the procurement contract can be conducted during execution of the project to verify compliance in the seller's work processes or deliverable. If authorized by contract, some inspection and audit teams can include buyer procurement personnel.
Question 49
You are in charge of performing the financial analysis for a troubled project in your company. The project is currently on hold and based on the results of your work, top management will decide on continuing or dropping the project. Which category of costs should you not consider in your analysis?

A
Indirect costs
B
Fixed Costs
C
Sunk Costs
D
Variable Costs
Question 49 Explanation: 
Sunk costs are the costs that are expended in the past. Sunk costs should not be considered when deciding on continuing a project.
Question 50
As a project manager in a large organization with various projects similar to yours, you are responsible to report the project status to the top management in a way that quickly and easily gives them the required information. Which one of the following is the best type of report to provide the required information to senior management?

A
Gantt Charts
B
Milestone reports
C
Project detailed schedules
D
Project management plans
Question 50 Explanation: 
The only report that best suits to the needs of senior management is the milestone report. The rest of the mentioned documents include a lot of redundant or detailed information for this purpose.
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results
There are 50 questions to complete.
List
Return
Shaded items are complete.
12345
678910
1112131415
1617181920
2122232425
2627282930
3132333435
3637383940
4142434445
4647484950
End
Return